CISSP - Question Bank 11
Test your knowledge of CISSP with these multiple choice questions. Each Question Bank includes 20 practice questions that have been designed to measure your knowledge of key ideas.
A key factor to keep in mind is that guessing is better than not answering a question.
Every single question on the CISSP exam is a four-option multiple choice question with a single correct answer. Some are straightforward, such as asking you to select a definition. Some are a bit more involved, such as asking you to select the appropriate concept or best practice. And some questions present you with a scenario or situation and ask you to select the best response.
StartQ1. Many PC operating systems provide functionality that enables them to support the simultaneous execution of multiple applications on single-processor systems. What term is used to describe this capability?
A. Multiprogramming
B. Multithreading
C. Multitasking
D. Multiprocessing
The Correct Answer is C.
Explanation: Multitasking is processing more than one task at the same time. In most cases, multitasking is actually simulated by the operating system even when not supported by the processor.
Q2. Which one of the following devices is most susceptible to TEMPEST monitoring of its emanations?
A. Floppy drive
B. Monitor
C. CD-ROM
D. Keyboard
The Correct Answer is B.
Explanation: Although all electronic devices emit some unwanted emanations, monitors are the devices most susceptible to this threat.
Q3. You have three applications running on a single-processor system that supports multitasking. One of those applications is a word processing program that is managing two threads simultaneously. The other two applications are using only one thread of execution. How many application threads are running on the processor at any given time?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
The Correct Answer is A.
Explanation: A single-processor system can operate on only one thread at a time. There would be a total of four application threads (ignoring any threads created by the operating system), but the operating system would be responsible for deciding which single thread is running on the processor at any given time.
Q4. What type of federal government computing system requires that all individuals accessing the system have a need-to-know all of the information processed by that system?
A. Dedicated
B. System high
C. Compartmented
D. Multilevel
The Correct Answer is A.
Explanation: In a dedicated system, all users must have a valid security clearance for the highest level of information processed by the system, they must have access approval for all information processed by the system, and they must have a valid need-to-know all information processed by the system.
Q5. What term describes the processor mode used to run the system tools used by administrators seeking to make configuration changes to a machine?
A. User mode
B. Supervisory mode
C. Kernel mode
D. Privileged mode
The Correct Answer is A.
Explanation: All user applications, regardless of the security permissions assigned to the user, execute in user mode. Supervisory mode, kernel mode, and privileged mode are all terms that describe the mode used by the processor to execute instructions that originate from the operating system itself.
Q6. What type of memory chip allows the end user to write information to the memory only one time and then preserves that information indefinitely without the possibility of erasure?
A. ROM
B. PROM
C. EPROM
D. EEPROM
The Correct Answer is B.
Explanation: Programmable read-only memory (PROM) chips may be written once by the end user but may never be erased. The contents of ROM chips are burned in at the factory and the end user is not allowed to write data. EPROM and EEPROM chips both make provisions for the end user to somehow erase the contents of the memory device and rewrite new data to the chip.
Q7. Which type of memory chip can be erased only when it is removed from the computer and exposed to a special type of ultraviolet light?
A. ROM
B. PROM
C. EPROM
D. EEPROM
The Correct Answer is C.
Explanation: EPROMs may be erased through exposure to high-intensity ultraviolet light. ROM and PROM chips do not provide erasure functionality. EEPROM chips may be erased through the application of electrical currents to the chip pins and do not require removal from the computer prior to erasure.
Q8. Which one of the following types of memory might retain information after being removed from a computer and, therefore, represent a security risk?
A. Static RAM
B. Dynamic RAM
C. Secondary memory
D. Real memory
The Correct Answer is C.
Explanation: Secondary memory is a term used to describe magnetic and optical media. These devices will retain their contents after being removed from the computer and may be later read by another user.
Q9. What is the single largest security threat RAM chips pose to your organization?
A. Data retention
B. Fire
C. Theft
D. Electronic emanations
The Correct Answer is C.
Explanation: RAM chips are highly pilferable items and the single greatest threat they pose is the economic loss that would result from their theft.
Q10. What type of electrical component serves as the primary building block for dynamic RAM chips?
A. Capacitor
B. Resistor
C. Flip-flop
D. Transistor
The Correct Answer is A.
Explanation: Dynamic RAM chips are built from a large number of capacitors, each of which holds a single electrical charge. These capacitors must be continually refreshed by the CPU in order to retain their contents. The data stored in the chip is lost when power is removed.
Q11. Which one of the following storage devices is most likely to require encryption technology in order to maintain data security in a networked environment?
A. Hard disk
B. Backup tape
C. Floppy disk
D. RAM
The Correct Answer is C.
Explanation: Floppy disks are easily removed and it is often not possible to apply operating system access controls to them. Therefore, encryption is often the only security measure short of physical security that can be afforded to them. Backup tapes are most often well controlled through physical security measures. Hard disks and RAM chips are often secured through operating system access controls.
Q12. In which of the following security modes can you be assured that all users have access permissions for all information processed by the system but will not necessarily have a need-to-know all of that information?
A. Dedicated
B. System high
C. Compartmented
D. Multilevel
The Correct Answer is C.
Explanation: In system high mode, all users have appropriate clearances and access permissions for all information processed by the system but have a need-to-know for only some of the information processed by that system.
Q13. Which one of the following security modes does not require that all users have a security clearance for the highest level of information processed by the system?
A. Dedicated
B. System high
C. Compartmented
D. Multilevel
The Correct Answer is D.
Explanation: In a multilevel security mode system, there is no requirement that all users have appropriate clearances to access all of the information processed by the system.
Q14. What type of memory device is normally used to contain a computer’s BIOS?
A. PROM
B. EEPROM
C. ROM
D. EPROM
The Correct Answer is B.
Explanation: BIOS and device firmware are often stored on EEPROM chips in order to facilitate future firmware updates.
Q15. What type of memory is directly available to the CPU and does not need to be loaded?
A. RAM
B. ROM
C. Register memory
D. Virtual memory
The Correct Answer is C.
Explanation: Registers are small memory locations that are located directly on the CPU chip itself. The data stored within them is directly available to the CPU and can be accessed extremely quickly.
Q16. In what type of addressing scheme is the data actually supplied to the CPU as an argument to the instruction?
A. Direct addressing
B. Immediate addressing
C. Base+Offset addressing
D. Indirect addressing
The Correct Answer is B.
Explanation: In immediate addressing, the CPU does not need to actually retrieve any data from memory. The data is contained in the instruction itself and can be immediately processed.
Q17. What type of addressing scheme supplies the CPU with a location that contains the memory address of the actual operand?
A. Direct addressing
B. Immediate addressing
C. Base+Offset addressing
D. Indirect addressing
The Correct Answer is D.
Explanation: In indirect addressing, the location provided to the CPU contains a memory address. The CPU retrieves the operand by reading it from the memory address provided (hence the use of the term indirect).
Q18. What security principle helps prevent users from accessing memory spaces assigned to applications being run by other users?
A. Separation of privilege
B. Layering
C. Process isolation
D. Least privilege
The Correct Answer is C.
Explanation: Process isolation provides separate memory spaces to each process running on a system. This prevents processes from overwriting each other’s data and ensures that a process can’t read data from another process.
Q19. Which security principle mandates that only a minimum number of operating system processes should run in supervisory mode?
A. Abstraction
B. Layering
C. Data hiding
D. Least privilege
The Correct Answer is D.
Explanation: The principle of least privilege states that only processes that absolutely need kernel-level access should run in supervisory mode. The remaining processes should run in user mode to reduce the number of potential security vulnerabilities.
Q20. Which security principle takes the concept of process isolation and implements it using physical controls?
A. Hardware segmentation
B. Data hiding
C. Layering
D. Abstraction
The Correct Answer is A.
Explanation: Hardware segmentation achieves the same objectives as process isolation but takes them to a higher level by implementing them with physical controls in hardware.
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